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�should � is a real modal, like �must �, �can �, �might �, �could � and so on... They modify the sense of the verb following the modal (always infinitive without �to �). �Ought to � is not a modal : therefore the �to � so you put the following verb in the infinitive.
Have a look below ... sometimes it can even be used with �should � ;o))
(the ref. is copied from The Free Dictionary)
hope it helps
ought 1(�t)
aux.v.
1. Used to indicate obligation or duty: You ought to work harder than that.
2. Used to indicate advisability or prudence: You ought to wear a raincoat.
3. Used to indicate desirability: You ought to have been there; it was great fun.
4. Used to indicate probability or likelihood: She ought to finish by next week.
[Middle English oughten, to be obliged to, from oughte, owned, from Old English hte, past tense of gan, to possess; see aik- in Indo-European roots.]
Usage Note: Unlike other auxiliary verbs, ought usually takes to with its accompanying verb: We ought to go. Sometimes the accompanying verb is dropped if the meaning is clear: Should we begin soon? Yes, we ought to. In questions and negative sentences, especially those with contractions, to is also sometimes omitted: Oughtn �t we be going soon? This omission of to, however, is not common in written English. Like must and auxiliary need, ought to does not change to show past tense: He said we ought to get moving along. � Usages such as He hadn �t ought to come and She shouldn �t ought to say that are common in many varieties of American English. They should be avoided in written English, however, in favor of the more standard variant ought not to.
Now I am REALLY confused because: 1. I �ve always thought "ought to" to be a modal verb (and I don �t think the explanation in The Free Dictionary says it isn �t); 2. I can �t see any circumstance in which "sometimes it can even be used with �should �"; I believe you wanted to mean it may be used instead of "should". H&K Nat�lia
I �m so sorry to confuse you !! THAT wasn �t my intention
1. I just wanted to remind that when you use �ought � you must add �to � before the verb it modifies ....
2. �she shouldn �t ought to say that � .... was one of the examples given above.
...... as far as I percieve it, �ought to � is a stronger modifier of advice than �should � it implies a kind of obligation to do so... but in spoken English ... they are sometimes very similar.
Modals use the infinitive without "to", so "ought to" is not a modal.
The meanings of "ought to" and "should" are essentially the same, at least in the US. Some people probably distinguish between them, but most people don �t.
Bruce
ought to (and �need to � actually) are taught along with the modals because they follow more or less the same rules. In fact, most books I �ve used consider them as such. They are actually semi-modals.
The trouble with �ought to � is that it �s falling out of fashion and you can �t used really use it in question form. It means basically the same as �should �.
I �m not sure that ought to is falling out of fashion everywhere. I am originally from the States and I have noticed native speakers from other countries use it far more often than I would (e.g. England--can anyone confirm that?). I agree though--ought to is a semi modal. I teach it at the same time as modals but point out the difference in form. I think the meaning of ought to and should is the same but I agree with yanogator that some might feel differently.
I can think of one case where you have no choice but to mix and match modals and semi modals -- when teaching the past tense of modals. There is no past tense form of must. When talking about obligation it is necessary to use had to:
now: You must walk to school. in the past: When I was a kid I had to walk to school.
. Thanks in advance.
hte, past tense of 
